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Is it right that the MK2 bezel carries a significant premium currently over the MK1? Shouldn’t it be the other way round as one is discontinued? Also if there is such little difference in the bezels to the layman’s eyes then they should have a very similar market value and not the current difference? Guess the reason could be that there are many more MK1 in the market due to its 3 year run compared to the MK2 that has only been in production for 12 months so if the market corrects in two years time the MK1 will be worth more than the MK2 presuming it is still in production in 2 years time?
Thanks
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