Quote:
Originally Posted by mountainjogger
Questions OP.
Am I correct that this is the watch you currently have listed for sale?
If so, did you receive the Roli-Works invoice (displayed in your listing) of work done when you purchased it? If so, shouldn't any questions about the redo of the case should be long gone?
As to the dial. Your listing did not disclose the dial issue until members fo this forum pointed it out. So, if it has been relumed (there seems to be some disagreement) then it was apparently good enough that two vintage watch sellers missed it before listing it (you and the seller). Am I correct?
You appear to have sold and continue to sell vintage watches. Your listing has a 96 hr return policy. So, what is your policy if a buyer of a vintage watch you sold raises a relume issue that you were not aware of well beyond your 96 hour return policy? Say months down the road, or years? Will you issue a full refund? What is the outer time limit that you as a seller will honor on the watches you have sold?
Just asking. I find this a fascinating topic.  |
Yes, Rolliworks receipt was included and I knew about the case (and accepted it immediately). Because the receipt was included, I accepted that work as being the extent of it. And since the seller did not disclose it, and offered to stand by the watch as "100% authentic," I felt comfortable. And after talking on the phone extensively, and texting extensively, he has struck me as an honest person with whom this conversation can be had. So I am trying.
As for the time question, I would honor my own 96 hour window, for sure. After that, the only return/refund I would entertain would involve any authenticity/originality issues that were clearly present (even in retrospect) at time of sale. The issue of authenticity/originality is something I would view as a threat to both my reputation and my conscience. I would work with the buyer to fix things. And if they couldn't be fixed, I'd refund in full and (over) apologize. I write all of that after having given this all kinds of thought (probably too much).
As for the "outer limit," in normal circumstances I'd be subject to the terms of payment, where I would implicitly have agreed to the return terms by accepting whatever form of payment I had agreed to accept. That's the "technical" answer.
The less technical answer is that there would be no outer limit if the buyer returned with evidence that the adverse issue had existed when I sold it. If I ever sold a watch with authenticity/originality compromises, I would want to know and fix it ASAP. And I would be a bit anxiety-filled until I knew that everyone knew I had done the right thing.
But, again, all of these are good questions and fair points.
Thank you for weighing in!