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Cutting out all the hyperbole and OP's ill advised attempt to involve Alfred, let's cut to the chase! He received a watch which he perceived did not match his expectations plus there is what appears to be a defect on the dial that may not have been noticed by previous owners. I don't know what the terms of the trade were but upon prompt notification to the other party a reversal of the transaction is not out of order. The question becomes at what point does prompt not apply and the proper course of action defaults to RSC for the dial issue?
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